PCCET Exam Study Guide Free Practice Test LAST UPDATED DATE Apr 17, 2024
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Palo Alto Networks PCCET (Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician) Certification Exam is a highly respected certification in the cybersecurity industry. Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician certification is designed for individuals who are new to the cybersecurity field and are looking to gain a foundational understanding of the latest cybersecurity technologies, techniques, and best practices. It is an entry-level certification that provides a broad understanding of cybersecurity technologies and concepts, making it a great starting point for those who are looking to start a career in cybersecurity.
The PCCET certification is ideal for individuals who are just starting their careers in cybersecurity and want to demonstrate their knowledge and skills to potential employers. It is also suitable for IT professionals who are looking to transition into the field of cybersecurity. Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician certification can help candidates stand out in a competitive job market and increase their earning potential.
NEW QUESTION # 10
In a traditional data center what is one result of sequential traffic analysis?
- A. simplifies security policy management
- B. reduces network latency
- C. improves security policy application ID enforcement
- D. causes security policies to be complex
Answer: D
Explanation:
Multiple policies, no policy reconciliation tools: Sequential traffic analysis (stateful inspection, application control, intrusion prevention system (IPS), anti-malware, etc.) in traditional data center security solutions requires a corresponding security policy or profile, often using multiple management tools. The result is that your security policies become convoluted as you build and manage a firewall policy with source, destination, user, port, and action; an application control policy with similar rules; and any other threat prevention rules required. Multiple security policies that mix positive (firewall) and negative (application control, IPS, and anti-malware) control models can cause security holes by missing traffic and/or not identifying
NEW QUESTION # 11
Which security component should you configure to block viruses not seen and blocked by the perimeter firewall?
- A. endpoint disk encryption
- B. endpoint NIC ACLs
- C. endpoint antivirus software
- D. strong endpoint passwords
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 12
In which situation would a dynamic routing protocol be the quickest way to configure routes on a router?
- A. the network has low bandwidth requirements
- B. the network needs backup routes
- C. the network is large
- D. the network is small
Answer: C
Explanation:
A static routing protocol requires that routes be created and updated manually on a router or other network device. If a static route is down, traffic can't be automatically rerouted unless an alternate route has been configured. Also, if the route is congested, traffic can't be automatically rerouted over the less congested alternate route. Static routing is practical only in very small networks or for very limited, special-case routing scenarios (for example, a destination that's used as a backup route or is reachable only via a single router). However, static routing has low bandwidth requirements (routing information isn't broadcast across the network) and some built-in security (users can route only to destinations that are specified in statically defined routes).
NEW QUESTION # 13
What does SIEM stand for?
- A. Secure Infrastructure and Event Monitoring
- B. Security Information and Event Management
- C. Standard Installation and Event Media
- D. Security Infosec and Event Management
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Originally designed as a tool to assist organizations with compliance and industry-specific regulations, security information and event management (SIEM) is a technology that has been around for almost two decades
NEW QUESTION # 14
Which option would be an example of PII that you need to prevent from leaving your enterprise network?
- A. A symmetric encryption key
- B. National security information
- C. Credit card number
- D. Trade secret
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 15
Which of the following is a Routed Protocol?
- A. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
- B. Domain Name Service (DNS)
- C. Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
- D. Internet Protocol (IP)
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 16
Which Palo Alto Networks product provides playbooks with 300+ multivendor integrations that help solve any security use case?
- A. Cortex XSOAR
- B. Cortex XDR
- C. Prisma Cloud
- D. AutoFocus
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
SOAR tools ingest aggregated alerts from detection sources (such as SIEMs, network security tools, and mailboxes) before executing automatable, process-driven playbooks to enrich and respond to these alerts.
https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/cortex/security-operations-automation
NEW QUESTION # 17
Which product from Palo Alto Networks extends the Security Operating Platform with the global threat intelligence and attack context needed to accelerate analysis, forensics, and hunting workflows?
- A. AutoFocus
- B. Global Protect
- C. STIX
- D. WildFire
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
page 173 "AutoFocus makes over a billion samples and sessions, including billions of artifacts, immediately actionable for security analysis and response efforts. AutoFocus extends the product portfolio with the global threat intelligence and attack context needed to accelerate analysis, forensics, and hunting workflows.
Together, the platform and AutoFocus move security teams away from legacy manual approaches that rely on aggregating a growing number of detectionbased alerts and post-event mitigation, to preventing sophisticated attacks and enabling proactive hunting activities."
NEW QUESTION # 18
Which characteristic of serverless computing enables developers to quickly deploy application code?
- A. Using Container as a Service (CaaS) to deploy application containers to run their code.
- B. Using cloud service spot pricing to reduce the cost of using virtual machines to run their application code
- C. Uploading cloud service autoscaling services to deploy more virtual machines to run their application code based on user demand
- D. Uploading the application code itself, without having to provision a full container image or any OS virtual machine components
Answer: D
Explanation:
"In serverless apps, the developer uploads only the app package itself, without a full container image or any OS components. The platform dynamically packages it into an image, runs the image in a container, and (if needed) instantiates the underlying host OS and VM and the hardware required to run them."
NEW QUESTION # 19
Which type of LAN technology is being displayed in the diagram?
- A. Star Topology
- B. Bus Topology
- C. Spine Leaf Topology
- D. Mesh Topology
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 20
Which endpoint product from Palo Alto Networks can help with SOC visibility?
- A. STIX
- B. WildFire
- C. Cortex XDR
- D. AutoFocus
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
XDR solutions bring a proactive approach to threat detection and response. It delivers visibility across all data, including endpoint, network, and cloud data, while applying analytics and automation to address today's increasingly sophisticated threats. With XDR, cybersecurity teams can:
Identify hidden, stealthy, and sophisticated threats proactively and quickly Track threats across any source or location within the organization Increase the productivity of the people operating the technology Get more out of their security investments Conclude investigations more efficiently
NEW QUESTION # 21
Which type of malware replicates itself to spread rapidly through a computer network?
- A. virus
- B. worm
- C. Trojan horse
- D. ransomware
Answer: B
Explanation:
A worm replicates through the network while a virus replicates, not necessarily to spread through the network.
NEW QUESTION # 22
How does Prisma SaaS provide protection for Sanctioned SaaS applications?
- A. Prisma access uses Uniform Resource Locator (URL) Web categorization to provide protection and sharing visibility
- B. Prisma SaaS connects directly to sanctioned external service providers SaaS application service to provide protection and sharing visibility
- C. Prisma SaaS does not provide protection for Sanctioned SaaS applications because they are secure
- D. Prisma SaaS connects to an organizations internal print and file sharing services to provide protection and sharing visibility
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 23
Which statement describes DevOps?
- A. DevOps is its own separate team
- B. DevOps is a set of tools that assists the Development and Operations teams throughout the software delivery process
- C. DevOps is a culture that unites the Development and Operations teams throughout the software delivery process
- D. DevOps is a combination of the Development and Operations teams
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 24
Which option describes the "selective network security virtualization" phase of incrementally transforming data centers?
- A. during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is forwarded to a Web proxy server
- B. during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is load balanced
- C. during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is encapsulated and encrypted using the IPSEC protocol
- D. during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host communication paths are strictly controlled
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Selective network security virtualization: Intra-host communications and live migrations are architected at this phase. All intra-host communication paths are strictly controlled to ensure that traffic between VMs at different trust levels is intermediated either by an on-box, virtual security appliance or by an off-box, physical security appliance.
NEW QUESTION # 25
In which step of the cyber-attack lifecycle do hackers embed intruder code within seemingly innocuous files?
- A. exploitation
- B. weaponization
- C. delivery
- D. reconnaissance
Answer: B
Explanation:
"Weaponization: Next, attackers determine which methods to use to compromise a target endpoint. They may choose to embed intruder code within seemingly innocuous files such as a PDF or Microsoft Word document or email message."
NEW QUESTION # 26
Which product from Palo Alto Networks enables organizations to prevent successful cyberattacks as well as simplify and strengthen security processes?
- A. MineMeld
- B. Expedition
- C. Cortex XDR
- D. AutoFocus
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
From a business perspective, XDR platforms enable organizations to prevent successful cyberattacks as well as simplify and strengthen security processes.
NEW QUESTION # 27
Which network firewall operates up to Layer 4 (Transport layer) of the OSI model and maintains information about the communication sessions which have been established between hosts on trusted and untrusted networks?
- A. Stateless
- B. Static packet-filter
- C. Stateful
- D. Group policy
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Stateful packet inspection firewalls Second-generation stateful packet inspection (also known as dynamic packet filtering) firewalls have the following characteristics:
They operate up to Layer 4 (Transport layer) of the OSI model and maintain state information about the communication sessions that have been established between hosts on the trusted and untrusted networks.
They inspect individual packet headers to determine source and destination IP address, protocol (TCP, UDP, and ICMP), and port number (during session establishment only) to determine whether the session should be allowed, blocked, or dropped based on configured firewall rules.
After a permitted connection is established between two hosts, the firewall creates and deletes firewall rules for individual connections as needed, thus effectively creating a tunnel that allows traffic to flow between the two hosts without further inspection of individual packets during the session.
This type of firewall is very fast, but it is port-based and it is highly dependent on the trustworthiness of the two hosts because individual packets aren't inspected after the connection is established.
NEW QUESTION # 28
Which TCP/IP sub-protocol operates at the Layer7 of the OSI model?
- A. UDP
- B. MAC
- C. NFS
- D. SNMP
Answer: D
Explanation:
* Application (Layer 7 or L7): This layer identifies and establishes availability of communication partners, determines resource availability, and synchronizes communication.
* Presentation (Layer 6 or L6): This layer provides coding and conversion functions (such as data representation, character conversion, data compression, and data encryption) to ensure that data sent from the Application layer of one system is compatible with the Application layer of the receiving system.
* Session (Layer 5 or L5): This layer manages communication sessions (service requests and service responses) between networked systems, including connection establishment, data transfer, and connection release.
* Transport (Layer 4 or L4): This layer provides transparent, reliable data transport and end-to-end transmission control.
NEW QUESTION # 29
Which feature of the VM-Series firewalls allows them to fully integrate into the DevOps workflows and CI/CD pipelines without slowing the pace of business?
- A. Elastic scalability
- B. 5G
- C. External dynamic lists
- D. Log export
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 30
Which type of Wi-Fi attack depends on the victim initiating the connection?
- A. Evil twin
- B. Parager
- C. Mirai
- D. Jasager
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Perhaps the easiest way for an attacker to find a victim to exploit is to set up a wireless access point that serves as a bridge to a real network. An attacker can inevitably bait a few victims with "free Wi-Fi access." The main problem with this approach is that it requires a potential victim to stumble on the access point and connect.
The attacker can't easily target a specific victim, because the attack depends on the victim initiating the connection.
https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/blog/2013/11/wireless-man-middle/
NEW QUESTION # 31
Which IoT connectivity technology is provided by satellites?
- A. 4G/LTE
- B. 2G/2.5G
- C. VLF
- D. L-band
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
2G/2.5G: 2G connectivity remains a prevalent and viable IoT connectivity option due to the low cost of 2G modules, relatively long battery life, and large installed base of
2G sensors and M2M applications.
3G: IoT devices with 3G modules use either Wideband Code Division Multiple Access (W-CDMA) or Evolved High Speed Packet Access (HSPA+ and Advanced HSPA+) to achieve data transfer rates of 384Kbps to 168Mbps.
4G/Long-Term Evolution (LTE): 4G/LTE networks enable real-time IoT use cases, such as autonomous vehicles, with 4G LTE Advanced Pro delivering speeds in excess of
3Gbps and less than 2 milliseconds of latency.
5G: 5G cellular technology provides significant enhancements compared to 4G/LTE networks and is backed by ultra-low latency, massive connectivity and scalability for IoT devices, more efficient use of the licensed spectrum, and network slicing for application traffic prioritization.
NEW QUESTION # 32
Which option is an example of a North-South traffic flow?
- A. Traffic between an internal server and internal user
- B. An internal three-tier application
- C. Client-server interactions that cross the edge perimeter
- D. Lateral movement within a cloud or data center
Answer: C
Explanation:
North-south refers to data packets that move in and out of the virtualized environment from the host network or a corresponding traditional data center. North-south traffic is secured by one or more physical form factor perimeter edge firewalls.
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which type of LAN technology is being displayed in the diagram?
- A. Mesh Topology
- B. Star Topology
- C. Bus Topology
- D. Spine Leaf Topology
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 34
In SecOps, what are two of the components included in the identify stage? (Choose two.)
- A. Initial Research
- B. Content Engineering
- C. Breach Response
- D. Change Control
Answer: A,B
NEW QUESTION # 35
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The PCCET exam consists of 65 multiple-choice questions and has a time limit of 90 minutes. PCCET exam covers a range of topics, including cybersecurity fundamentals, network security, endpoint protection, cloud security, and security operations. Candidates who pass the exam will receive a certification that is valid for two years.
Get Prepared for Your PCCET Exam With Actual 145 Questions: https://testinsides.actualpdf.com/PCCET-real-questions.html
